The following sample questions are designed to test clinical reasoning, red-flag recognition, emergency prioritization, and next-best-step decision-making. They are for practice only and do not represent official exam questions.
MCQ 1: Acute Chest Pain with Hemodynamic Instability
A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and a 30-pack-year smoking history presents to a primary care clinic with 45 minutes of severe central chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw. He is pale, sweaty, and nauseated. Blood pressure is 86/58 mmHg, pulse is 48/min, oxygen saturation is 95% on room air, and chest auscultation is clear. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal ST depression in leads I and aVL.
What is the most appropriate immediate management?
A. Give sublingual nitrate and observe for symptom improvement
B. Treat as acute inferior STEMI, give antiplatelet therapy if not contraindicated, and activate urgent reperfusion/emergency transfer pathway
C. Arrange outpatient cardiology review within 24 hours
D. Give oral proton-pump inhibitor and repeat ECG after 2 hours
E. Start oral beta-blocker immediately to control myocardial oxygen demand
Correct answer: B. Treat as acute inferior STEMI, give antiplatelet therapy if not contraindicated, and activate urgent reperfusion/emergency transfer pathway
Explanation:
A is incorrect: Nitrates can worsen hypotension, especially in inferior MI with possible right ventricular involvement. This patient is already hypotensive and bradycardic, so nitrates are unsafe as the first step.
B is correct: ST elevation in II, III, and aVF with reciprocal changes suggests inferior STEMI. Hypotension and bradycardia increase concern for significant acute coronary syndrome and possible right ventricular involvement. The priority is emergency ACS management and urgent reperfusion pathway according to local protocol.
C is incorrect: Outpatient review is unsafe. This is an acute STEMI with hemodynamic instability.
D is incorrect: Dyspepsia treatment is inappropriate when ECG confirms STEMI. Do not delay emergency management.
E is incorrect: Beta-blockers are not appropriate immediately in hypotension or bradycardia and may worsen hemodynamic compromise.
Key learning point: In GP licensing exams, acute coronary syndrome questions often test whether the candidate recognizes ECG red flags and avoids unsafe delay or contraindicated treatment.
MCQ 2: Severe Asthma Exacerbation with Poor Response
A 27-year-old woman with known asthma presents to urgent care with worsening breathlessness for 8 hours after an upper respiratory infection. She has used her salbutamol inhaler repeatedly with minimal relief. She is anxious, unable to complete sentences, and using accessory muscles. Respiratory rate is 36/min, pulse is 128/min, oxygen saturation is 88% on room air, and peak expiratory flow is approximately 35% of her personal best. Chest auscultation reveals widespread wheeze, but air entry is reduced bilaterally.
What is the most appropriate immediate management?
A. Reassure her and prescribe oral antibiotics for presumed bronchitis
B. Perform spirometry before giving treatment to confirm severity
C. Give controlled oxygen, repeated inhaled/nebulized short-acting bronchodilator therapy, systemic corticosteroid, and arrange urgent escalation/emergency transfer
D. Give oral antihistamine and review after 24 hours
E. Start long-acting beta-agonist monotherapy and discharge
Correct answer: C. Give controlled oxygen, repeated inhaled/nebulized short-acting bronchodilator therapy, systemic corticosteroid, and arrange urgent escalation/emergency transfer
Explanation:
A is incorrect: This is not simple bronchitis. The patient has severe asthma features: inability to complete sentences, hypoxemia, tachypnea, tachycardia, reduced peak flow, and poor response to home bronchodilator use.
B is incorrect: Spirometry should not delay emergency treatment. Peak flow and clinical assessment are enough to recognize severity.
C is correct: Severe asthma exacerbation requires immediate oxygen, repeated short-acting bronchodilator treatment, systemic corticosteroid, close monitoring, and urgent escalation/transfer if severe or poorly responsive.
D is incorrect: Antihistamine does not treat severe bronchospasm or hypoxemia.
E is incorrect: Long-acting beta-agonist monotherapy is unsafe in asthma and is not acute management.
Key learning point: Severe asthma questions test urgency, oxygenation, bronchodilator use, steroid timing, and recognition that investigations should not delay treatment.
MCQ 3: Hypertensive Disorder in Pregnancy
A 34-year-old primigravida at 35 weeks’ gestation presents with severe headache, visual blurring, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain. She reports reduced fetal movements since the morning. Blood pressure is 168/112 mmHg on repeat measurement. Urine dipstick shows 3+ protein. She appears unwell. There is mild ankle edema. No seizure has occurred.
What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Reassure her that edema and headache are common in late pregnancy
B. Prescribe oral analgesia and review in 48 hours
C. Treat as severe preeclampsia and arrange urgent obstetric assessment/admission
D. Start oral iron therapy and routine antenatal follow-up
E. Diagnose migraine and discharge if symptoms improve after paracetamol
Correct answer: C. Treat as severe preeclampsia and arrange urgent obstetric assessment/admission
Explanation:
A is incorrect: Severe headache, visual symptoms, right upper quadrant pain, severe hypertension, proteinuria, and reduced fetal movements are red flags. This is not normal late pregnancy discomfort.
B is incorrect: Delayed review is unsafe. Severe preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia, stroke, HELLP syndrome, placental complications, and fetal compromise.
C is correct: This presentation is highly concerning for severe preeclampsia. The correct GP-level action is urgent obstetric assessment/admission and management according to emergency maternity protocol.
D is incorrect: Iron therapy does not address the acute maternal-fetal risk.
E is incorrect: Migraine should not be diagnosed before excluding severe hypertensive disorder of pregnancy in this context.
Key learning point: In pregnancy scenarios, the exam often tests red flags that require urgent referral rather than symptomatic outpatient treatment.
MCQ 4: Febrile Child with Sepsis Red Flags
A 2-year-old child is brought to a GP clinic with fever for 18 hours, poor oral intake, and increasing drowsiness. The mother reports only one wet diaper in the past 10 hours. The child is lethargic, has cool peripheries, capillary refill time of 4 seconds, respiratory rate 42/min, heart rate 168/min, and temperature 39.4°C. There is no clear focus on examination.
What is the safest management?
A. Give antipyretic and discharge with advice to return if worse
B. Prescribe oral antibiotic and review after 48 hours
C. Arrange urgent emergency assessment for possible sepsis and begin initial stabilization according to local protocol
D. Request outpatient blood tests and wait for results before deciding
E. Diagnose viral fever because there is no clear focus of infection
Correct answer: C. Arrange urgent emergency assessment for possible sepsis and begin initial stabilization according to local protocol
Explanation:
A is incorrect: Antipyretic alone is unsafe. The child has red flags: lethargy, poor intake, oliguria, prolonged capillary refill, tachycardia, tachypnea, and cool peripheries.
B is incorrect: Oral antibiotics with delayed review are inadequate when sepsis is possible.
C is correct: This child needs urgent emergency assessment and initial stabilization. In GP licensing exams, recognition of serious illness and urgent escalation is often more important than naming the exact organism.
D is incorrect: Outpatient tests should not delay emergency management in an unstable child.
E is incorrect: Absence of a clear focus does not exclude serious infection. In fact, sepsis may present without a clear initial focus.
Key learning point: Pediatric fever questions often test whether the candidate recognizes abnormal perfusion, reduced urine output, lethargy, and respiratory/circulatory red flags.
MCQ 5: Diabetes Follow-Up with Cardiovascular and Renal Risk
A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes attends follow-up. He is taking metformin and a statin. HbA1c remains above individualized target on two readings despite lifestyle advice and good adherence. He has hypertension, microalbuminuria, and a previous myocardial infarction 2 years ago. eGFR is reduced but still within a range where additional glucose-lowering therapy may be considered according to local guidance. He has no symptoms of hypoglycemia.
What is the best next step?
A. Stop metformin because HbA1c is above target
B. Continue the same treatment and repeat HbA1c in 2 years
C. Review adherence, renal function, cardiovascular risk, and consider adding an agent with proven cardiovascular/renal benefit according to local protocol
D. Start insulin immediately in all patients with HbA1c above target
E. Ignore cardiovascular history because diabetes treatment depends only on HbA1c
Correct answer: C. Review adherence, renal function, cardiovascular risk, and consider adding an agent with proven cardiovascular/renal benefit according to local protocol
Explanation:
A is incorrect: Metformin is not stopped simply because HbA1c is above target, unless there is intolerance or contraindication. Treatment intensification is usually considered after reviewing adherence, renal function, and comorbidities.
B is incorrect: Persistent poor control with microalbuminuria and cardiovascular disease requires active review, not long delay.
C is correct: This patient has type 2 diabetes with established cardiovascular disease and renal risk markers. Management should consider individualized glycemic targets, renal function, adherence, blood pressure, lipid control, and addition of therapy with cardiovascular/renal benefit according to local guidelines and contraindications.
D is incorrect: Insulin may be appropriate in selected cases, but it is not automatically required for every patient above target.
E is incorrect: Cardiovascular and renal risk strongly influence diabetes management decisions, not HbA1c alone.
Key learning point: Diabetes questions increasingly test risk-based management, not just glucose numbers. GP candidates should consider cardiovascular disease, kidney disease, hypoglycemia risk, adherence, and individualized targets.
For more exam-style practice, use ExamCure’s GP MCQ banks and timed mock tests to practice clinical reasoning, red flags, next-best-step decisions, and authority-focused GP exam preparation for 2026.